Question 1
Why did ancient civilizations eventually replace body-based measurements like the cubit with standardized units?No clue? Show me the answer
Correct answer
Correct!
IncorrectStep-by-step walkthrough
Choose a solution method
Method #1Direct ApproachStep 1: Identify the problem with body-based units
The cubit was defined as the distance from the elbow to the tip of the middle finger. This length differs from person to person — a tall person has a longer cubit than a shorter person.
Step 2: Apply the consequence of inconsistency
If two people use their own body to measure the same object, they will get different numbers. This makes it impossible to reliably compare or reproduce measurements across different people or places.
Step 3: Select the correct answer
The core reason for moving to standardized units was that body-based measurements varied between individuals, making them unreliable for consistent scientific or commercial use.
Method #2Process of EliminationStep 1: Identify what the question is asking
The question asks for the main reason why civilizations moved away from body-based measurement systems toward standardized units.
Step 2: Eliminate 'too complicated to remember'
Body-based measurements like the cubit are actually very easy to remember — you just look at your own arm. This option is incorrect.
Step 3: Eliminate 'could only be used for building'
There is no evidence that body-based measurements were restricted to building. The cubit was used widely across many contexts. This option is a distractor.
Step 4: Eliminate 'invented by scientists who wanted mathematics'
This is vague and inaccurate. Standardized units were developed out of practical need for consistency, not merely a scientific preference for mathematics.
Step 5: Select the correct answer
The remaining option — that body-based measurements varied from person to person — is the correct reason. A cubit measured by a pharaoh differed from one measured by a shorter worker, making standardization necessary.
Question 2
A distance of 3.5 km is equal to how many metres?No clue? Show me the answer
Correct answer
Correct!
IncorrectStep-by-step walkthrough
Choose a solution method
Method #1Direct ApproachStep 1: Recall the prefix 'kilo'
The prefix kilo always means . Therefore, .
Step 2: Multiply to convert
Step 3: Select the correct answer
The correct conversion is 3500 m.
Method #2Process of EliminationStep 1: Identify the conversion needed
We need to convert kilometres to metres. The key fact is .
Step 2: Eliminate 350 m
350 m would result from multiplying by 100 instead of 1000. This confuses 'kilo' () with 'hecto' ().
Step 3: Eliminate 35 m
35 m would result from multiplying by only 10. This is far too small for a kilometre conversion.
Step 4: Eliminate 0.0035 m
0.0035 m would be the result of dividing by 1000 rather than multiplying — this is going in the wrong direction (from metres to kilometres, not the other way around).
Step 5: Select the correct answer
is the only correct answer.
16 more questions in this topic
Pick this up in your Library: it holds the whole topic, notes, cheatsheet and questions. Your answers here are kept on this device.